But related phrase in present day English can have developed pronunciations without having hiatus, Probably partially due to ambiguous spellings or analogy with linked phrases that happen to be pronounced with out a hiatus: e.g. aeneous
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@Lambie: Hmm, I'm unsure ... There are plenty of examples, so there might not be one particular one rule for the distinctions involving BrE and AmE. I wrote a solution to a separate issue with regards to the pronunciation of "aegis": english.stackexchange.com/queries/438507/…
In all scenarios I'm able to visualize in classically derived phrases, whether it's spelled æ/ae/e or œ/oe/e would make no variance (French imports like bœuf, hors d’œuvre, cri de cœur, trompe l’œil don’t rely—just Latin or Greek for ae and Greek for oe.)
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(Sometimes, Latin "ae" in its place corresponds to Romance /e/: this is believed to depict another growth in which at some earlier stage prior to the loss of vowel duration, ae